Why does it appear FBI is more interested in fraud outside the USA, while it appears to cover up, avoid or ignore fraud by judges and attorneys (especially), in USA?*
Nice question. I’ve speculated about this from time to time.
I used to think that Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, which makes it illegal for US companies to pay bribes abroad, was a way to ensure that US companies pay all their bribes locally.
Then I read a slightly different take by Matt Levine, which is around fines to paid locally: “… this is just the U.S. taking its cut. If you’re a German bank bribing Saudi officials to win Middle Eastern business, you have to budget some money (by way of fines) to pay off the U.S. government too.”
I personally liked Levine’s take more than mine but I leave it to you to decide which of the two you find more realistic.
*: This is the original question I answered. I’m repeating it to help me make sense of my answer in case it’s moved to / merged with some other question that I didn’t answer.